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I've just found this

E olhe, não sei se me fica mal dizer-lho, mas a rapariga quer-lhe deveras, João Eduardo.

in a portuguese book.

However, this topic verb + -o and verb + -lo claims that verb-ar /verb-er + lo ==> verb-a / verb-e-lo. Namely, the r gets eliminated off a verb when a verb ends, among z and s, in r.

t So, is this dizer-lho correct or not? What's a rule here then?

I'm asking about the Portuguese of Portugal only.

Camila326
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2 Answers2

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Yes, it is correct, lho is a contraction lhe(s) + o (indirect object + direct object). Thus dizer-lho means dizê-lo a ele(s)/ela(s)/você(s).

No alteration occurs when the verb and lho are concatenated (and thus dizer-lho is correct, in all dialects). Alterations occur only in the following cases:

  • ...r/s/z + o(a)(s) → ...(delete final consonant)-lo(a)(s), and some short verbs admit two possibilities (e.g., qué-lo/quere-o [1]);
  • ...N + o(a)(s) → ...N-no(a)(s) where N is a nasal sound (-m or -õe, or -ão?);
  • ...mos + nos → ...mo-nos (where nos is 1st person plural [2]).

List of contractions indirect + direct object:

  • me → ma(s), mo(s);
  • te → ta(s), to(s);
  • lhe(s) → lha(s), lho(s);
  • nos → no-lo(s), no-la(s);
  • vos → vo-lo(s), vo-la(s).

More examples: https://portuguese.stackexchange.com/a/3585/13298 (in Portuguese).

[1]. "Quere-o" - https://ciberduvidas.iscte-iul.pt/consultorio/perguntas/quere-o/2147

[2]. "Lavamo-nos e Lavamos-vos" - https://ciberduvidas.iscte-iul.pt/consultorio/perguntas/lavamo-nos-e-lavamos-vos/31030

  • I know what it is and how it's created. My question is whether or not it's correct to attach it after verb-r. If it is, why isn't it correct to use, let's say, prepara(r)-lo with r too? Which isn't the same, but similar. – Camila326 Aug 16 '23 at 01:40
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The final r (or s/z) are dropped only when appending -o/a/os/as or when appending -nos after the 1st person plural.

The only exception is quer+o ⇒ quere-o (qué-lo is not really used that much).

Artefacto
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